A 49-year-old woman had a mastectomy and ALND. T3(2)N1M0, 1/12 positive ALN, ER 95%, PR 80%, Ki67 12%, HER2 negative, invasive pleomorphic lobular carcinoma grade 3. What would you go with and why? 4AC-4T or 4TC?
I would prefer AC->T over TC in view of young age, pleomorphic histology and no comorbidities. Evidence shows that TC is non-inferior and DFS outcomes are equivalent based on ABC group of trials and PLAN B.
Though you won’t be wrong if you choose TC to avoid cardiac risk and long duration of treatment.